To hear him speak English, you would think he were an American

hirashin

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Dear native English speakers,

A lot of grammar books published in Japan have some sentences like
"(a) To hear him speak English, you would think he were an American."
An American friend of mine says the sentence wouldn't be used in the US.
What do you think of it?
How about these?
(b) If you heard him speak English, you would think he were an American.
(c) If you had heard him speak English, you would think he were an American.
(d) If you were to hear him speak English, you would think he were an American.

Hirashin
 
Here in the US, I think that all three of those ( b, c, and d ) would be used.
 
Thanks for the help, Layatrand.
(a) wouldn't be used in the US, right?
 
Thanks for the help, Layatrand.
(a) wouldn't be used in the US, right?

You're getting into very minimal differences where individuals might use slightly different words. Some might say a, and some might say a with "was" substituted for "were."
 
Thanks for the message, Wonko. I don't think I'm getting into a subtle difference because an American friend of mine says that in the US, "to hear him speak English" wouldn't be used to mean "if you heard him speak English". That's why I ask other native speakers about it.
 
Hello Hirashin,

I agree with Wonko; the differences are so subtle as to be without importance. All of the above (a) through (d) are fine, and they all imply the same thing: that the person in question speaks American-English so well, the listener would be astonished to learn that the speaker is not, in fact, an American person.

I can't imagine why your American friend would object to (a). Grammatically, idiomatically, it is fine. There are no problems with it. In this case, I think the Japanese texts are right, and your friend is mistaken.
 
Thanks for the message, Wonko. I don't think I'm getting into a subtle difference because an American friend of mine says that in the US, "to hear him speak English" wouldn't be used to mean "if you heard him speak English". That's why I ask other native speakers about it.

I respect your friend, and his opinion, but I disagree. English spoken in the USA has great variance and the examples you're giving are not even very varied. I could give you ways to express the same thought which are significantly grammatically incorrect to SAE, but completely appropriate to significant segments of the population.
 
Hello all,

I'm not a native English speaker (instead I'm from the nearly bilingual
Netherlands), but I can not believe that no one has yet pointed out that
in the phrase

"you would think he WERE an American"

the "WERE" is just plain wrong grammatically. Anyways, to my best
knowledge it is wrong when using the traditional "British English" grammar.
(Maybe in informal US usage it is different.)

The verb form should be: "WAS". I.e., it should be:

"you would think he WAS an American"

This is because the phrase "he was an American" is used as a subordinate
clause of another verb (namely, "think"), and therefore the phrase "he xxx
an American" (where xxx is a form of the verb "to be") is in the subjunctive.
The subjunctive of "is" is "was", not "were".

I think the whole use of the subjunctive has some slight archaic overtones
in English. It sounds like somewhat formal language (such as in business
letters or scientific papers), or like language from a somewhat older novel
or from a novel that caters to the museum- and art-gallery visiting part
of the population. I think that in informal speech or in text that aims
to sound modern, you can simply use "is" :

"you would think he IS an American"

---
You hear the "were" used often in cases like this, but the "were" sounds
really VERY archaic to me (definitely more so than the "was"). (Maybe in
the US it's normal usage, I don't know.) I'd have to look up what mood
or form of verb "were" actually is, grammatically.

Native speakers please correct me.

With best regards,

Menno ( メンノー )
 
Often, the people who would say "To hear him speak English" are the type of people who might also use the word 'were' specifically because it feels right to the phrasing.

American English is extremely varied, which is why questions like this don't have one answer. In my home we were specifically taught not to ask "Can I have the..." when requesting food at the table to be passed, instead saying "May I have..." or "Please pass the..." which is different from many people. In the south, especially among African Americans, it is often taught not to say "I'm sorry" and instead to say "I apologize" because the first can imply a negative about the speaker instead of a specific response to a situation.

Between the extreme variations of American English dialect, and the way many people will fit a word choice based on the style of phrase, I respectfully submit that it is an entirely reasonable phrase.
 
Hello @WonkoTheSane さん,

Thank you for your reply. Your reply caused me to check, and actually it was me who was plain wrong, namely I was wrong in what the actual verb forms are (see below for details). I joined this list to learn Japanese, but it turns out that what I'm actually learning is English :).

Often, the people who would say "To hear him speak English" are the type of people who might also use the word 'were' specifically because it feels right to the phrasing.

I looked things up, and found this webpage that explains the subjunctive in the English language in a clear and accessible way:

Subjunctive | Grammar | EnglishClub

Which states that for the 3rd person singular (he), the subjunctive forms of "to be" are:

present subjunctive : he be
past subjunctive : he were

So the phrase

"you would think he WERE an American"

is actually completely correct grammatically. The grammar is the correct, traditional, formal "British English" grammar, and the language style is somewhat formal (or maybe better: the language style is not informal). The "were" is correct because it is a subjunctive form (past subjunctive, 3rd person singular) of the verb "to be".

At the end of the webpage I mentioned, there is a table comparing formal and informal language usage. The left of the table (formal) shows the "were" form, and right of the table (informal) shows the "was" form that I used in my previous email. So in actual usage of the language, I think that one may say that in practice there are *two forms* of the English subjunctive, namely a non-informal one (using the correct and tradtional form "were") and an informal one (using "was").

I think that I now also understand how I came to believe that "was" was the correct subunctive form: when learning English, I've always tried to acquire a relatively "modern" style of English (as a software developer and software documentation writer, this seemed to be the right thing). So it seems that in the subjunctive thing, I have overcorrected, and had somehow so gotten used to using "was" that I forgot the theory and came to believe that the non-formal "was" was the actual correct form of the subjunctive.

It makes sense to me when you say that "To hear him speak English" lies in the same area of formal/informal language use as the "traditional" subjunctive form "were", i.e. that the "were" fits right in with the beginning part of the sentence.

---
Another interesting point in your reply is the variation in American English.

American English is extremely varied, which is why questions like this don't have one answer. In my home we were specifically taught not to ask "Can I have the..." when requesting food at the table to be passed, instead saying "May I have..." or "Please pass the..." which is different from many people. In the south, especially among African Americans, it is often taught not to say "I'm sorry" and instead to say "I apologize" because the first can imply a negative about the speaker instead of a specific response to a situation.

Between the extreme variations of American English dialect, and the way many people will fit a word choice based on the style of phrase, I respectfully submit that it is an entirely reasonable phrase.

That is very interesting -- それ は 大変 面白い です.

I get the impression that the variation in English is bigger than that in Dutch (my native language) and than that in German (where I've been living and working now for 12 years). Dutch is a small language which naturally brings a type of "restrictiveness", but German with 90 million or so speakers is not a small language and has e.g. quite large vocabulary. Still, my impression is that in German, the "rules" that are observed by native speakers (even in informal speach) for what is correct and not correct are clearer ("more restrictive", thus allowing less variation) than they are in the English language.

I'm taking this up this "extensively" because I'm wondering how this variation aspect is in the Japanese language. -- Is Japanese more like English in that "everything goes" (i.e. the "rules" allow great variation in language usage), or is it more like German in that the rules are clearer thus allowing less variation ? I'm not referring here to the well-known formal/informal/polite registers in Japanese (because each of these registers seems to have its own set of clear rules). Instead, I'm wondering about the sitation inside of each (or any one) of the formality registers. I.e. inside the normal "polite" (丁寧語) register (using です), how "clear" and rigid are the rules for what is correct and incorrect language, i.e. what is the "bandwidth" allowed by the rules ? Inside 丁寧語 language, is there a situation similar to English, in that language constructions or word forms that are in some ways "incorrect" grammatically (or that are incorrect in certain older forms of grammar) are nevertheless very widely used ?

---
With best regards,

Menno ( メンノー )
 
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Well, keep in mind that the way it sounds natural to you (using 'was') is also the way it sounds natural to a lot of native English speakers, and even though they can't explain why in the way you're able to, they have a similar knee jerk reaction of 'were' sounding strange.

Which is a real testament to your strength as an English speaker. Being able to do something wrong because it feels innately natural, and to be correct about it, is a pretty high level language accomplishment in my opinion!

As to Japanese, though I have suspicions, I'll leave it to people far more knowledgeable than me to answer.

I will say that my guess is that the more heterogeneous a society is, with the more immigration over longer periods, the more varied the dialects and the looser the rules. But I can't support that opinion with facts or research.
 
Hi WonkoTheSane さん,

As to Japanese, though I have suspicions, I'll leave it to people far more knowledgeable than me to answer.

Heh :) you posess quite the Japanese humbleness. (Just kidding you.)

Well, keep in mind that the way it sounds natural to you (using 'was') is also the way it sounds natural to a lot of native English speakers, and even though they can't explain why in the way you're able to, they have a similar knee jerk reaction of 'were' sounding strange.

In this respect it may be interesting to mention the book _The Language Instinct_ by Steven Pinker. There he expounds his view that each distinct group of speakers (with their own distinct language usage) actually *creates* its own grammar. That is, each "language usage form" has its own distinct grammar, meaning that what is counted as "grammatically correct" in one group of speakers (= their "knee jerk" reactions as to what is correct) is different from what is counted as "grammatically correct" in another group of speakers. Pinker's view is that from a purely linguistic perspective, there is no basis to say that the grammar of one group of speakers is "more correct" than the grammar of another group of speakers.

I will say that my guess is that the more heterogeneous a society is, with the more immigration over longer periods, the more varied the dialects and the looser the rules. But I can't support that opinion with facts or research.

That hypothesis sounds very plausible to me. It seems to fit well with Dutch and German. Dutch is not a very good example for comparison though because its linguistic homogeneity would be explainable merely from its small population size. The German-speaking world is larger and therefore more interesting. The German-speaking world (including Austria and the German-speaking part of Switzerland) is very homogenous in its population (with little migration over the borders of this geographical area), and Germany is also homogenous in social structure (i.e. in the views and habits of its people), and the hypothesis that this can explain the small language variability seems to fit.

Going ahead and boldly extrapolating the application of the hypothesis, and seeing that Japan is very homogenous in its population, this would make me suppose that language variability in Japan would be of the German kind (clear rules and small variation), not of the US kind (many different speaker groups with each their own "grammar" and thus large variation). Hirasin, could you comment ?

---
With best regards to all,

Menno ( メンノー )
 
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Thank you all the native speakers of English for your help. And thank you for your input, Menno san.
I respect your opinion. But I need information from native speakers.
 
Text books often teach you as if you a very well educated and polite person from the cultural centre of that language.
For instance teaching English as it would be expected from an Oxford Professor rather than a London builder.
In truth Language changes and evolve (or 'devolve' if you pay heed to the letters pages of the newspapers) at diferent rates in diferent places, so the rules change.

'Were' is a subjunctive form of 'was' (i.e. the wishful thinking or desire form of a verb). Whilst it was very useful and well used in he modest and passive style of Victorian literature, modern literature and culture is far more active and immediate, so far more used to using the more active Indicative form 'was'. It is not wrong, just a change in taste and style. However 'were' is now in danger though of ending up on the linguistic scrapheap as not really being used much and thus getting forgotten. Once again, not wrong so much as just a basic fact of life for languages. Things change words die.
 
I have to challenge this idea that the subjunctive use of "were" is archaic or is somehow on the list of endangered species. It is a common, widely used grammatical device found in English, immediately comprehensible to all who come across it. An editor worth his salary will surely fix any subjunctive phrase using "was" into the proper "were", unless it were a part of dialogue. Nobody hearing the song "If I Were A Rich Man" would think the title to be quaint or Victorian. It may be that in a hundred years from now the subjunctive will be out of use, but I think the rumors of its death are greatly exaggerated.
 
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Sorry, should have clarified it a bit better. A hundred years is not far off what I was thinking of when I said it was on its way out. I like very old often dead languages so look at language change as a very long term picture.
 
Hirashin,
Getting back to your original question...
I am a native American English speaker.
I think that I would be more likely to use any of (b), (c), or (d) than (a), and I would suspect that among all Americans as a whole, the (b), (c), or (d) forms would be somewhat more common than (a) when expressing this kind of idea.
However, I see nothing wrong with (a). When I first read (a) in your post, it sounded fine to me. And thinking about it further, it still seems fine. I am sure that there are some Americans who, when expressing this kind of idea, would use the (a) form.
 
They all sound completely wrong to me.
'If you were to hear him speak English, then you would think he was an American' or 'If you were to hear him speak English, you would think he is an American' are fine, but 'You would think he were an American' sounds completely bizarre to me, and I'm pretty sure it's plain wrong.

Wikipedia indicates that the English subjunctive can be used in counterfactual clauses ('If he were an American...' is fine, for example), and in 'that' clauses. I suppose that means that 'If you were to hear him speak English, then you would think that he were an American' would be technically correct, but it sounds horrible to me, as a straight up plural vs. singular mismatch.

I don't think that you can use 'were' in an independent clause like 'You would think he were an American' in any case, and I'm not actually convinced that simply adding 'that' makes it any better.

In any case, I have no problem with the first half of any of a/b/c/d, it's only the second half that sounds wrong and is probably what your friend was objecting to.

(Edit: hnnh? Didn't you ask exactly the same question 2 years ago... To hear him speak English, you would think he were ... | WordReference Forums ...
In any case, I think the fact that your post with that question is the first google result on searching 'you would think he were' says something about how much that phrasing is actually used in normal English.)
 
Thanks for your comments, lincstreff, Chris and Mike.
I post this question two years ago. I think I post the same question on other sites, too.
I'm an English teacher. I have to teach English although I'm not really confident in my English.
That's frustrating, but I can't help it. Otherwise, I will go broke. (Do I make sense?)
I am really grateful to all the kind people here who help me with English.
If not for their help, I would often have been at a loss.
(Would you please correct my sentences if needed?)

Thanks again.

Hirashin
 
Thanks for your comments, lincstreff, Chris and Mike.
I post this question two years ago. I think I post the same question on other sites, too.
I'm an English teacher. I have to teach English although I'm not really confident in my English.
That's frustrating, but I can't help it. Otherwise, I will go broke. (Do I make sense?)
I am really grateful to all the kind people here who help me with English.
If not for their help, I would often have been at a loss.
(Would you please correct my sentences if needed?)

Thanks again.

Hirashin

Having taught English briefly in the United States, I can safely say your English is much better than many of the students who entered my classroom. Your use of punctuation in the above post is 1,000 times more advanced than many of the high school and college students I taught years ago.

Just a FYI: Your sentence above (I post this question two years ago. I think I post the same question on other sites, too.) should read "I POSTED this question....and "I think I POSTED...." for past tense of the word post.

Your English is much better than my Japanese! I found this site hoping to have a few words translated for a novel and discovered the Japanese language is far more complex than English. You make perfect sense, and good luck to you in your career.
 
Hirashin, I think your English is a lot better than you think. Your grammar and spelling are usually perfect. You sometimes sound slightly unnatural, but I think that is a problem with any person learning any other language.
 
Thanks for your encouraging comments, Edward and OoTmaster. I really appreciate them. Now I teach a lot of students who lack incentive to study English. It's really hard to motivate them .
 
That is a really hard thing about teaching others another language. I am learning Japanese because I am personally motivated to do so, which I believe makes it that much easier to learn. I think the most important thing to know is that people are motivated by different things. The better you know a person the easier it is to understand their motivation. I personally am motivated in my Japanese studies by my desire to learn in general, of course sometimes motivation can only come from ones self so as a teacher you can only do so much to motivate.
 
My grammar background is fairly weak, I've always stumbled over the use of "were" and stayed away from it; there are other ways to say the same, but of course that doesn't help you in the classroom.
I learned English mainly by listening, and I hear some fine differences between the sentences.
"(b) If you heard him speak English, you would think he were an American." I like this one the most but would say "If you would hear him speak English, ..." because the "would" gets repeated in the rest of the sentence.
"(c) If you had heard him speak English, you would think he were an American." I would use this one in the case that I heard him speak yesterday, in the past.
"(d) If you were to hear him speak English, you would think he were an American" indicates the future, somehow.
Please correct me if I'm wrong, I don't want to confuse hirashin! :)
 
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