If there is no difference in meaning or nuance, doesn't it seem odd for a writer to write 目 mostly, and then in one place for no reason write 眼? I think when I asked a similar question about "spelling" difference once before the answer was "no", but I still find this hard to adjust to. In English, even though there may be variant spellings for a word, it would be expected that an author would be internally consistent, at least within one work.