He didn't talk/speak to me until I had finished my job.

hirashin

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8 Apr 2004

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• 14 Jun 2017

• #1

Dear native English speakers,
Would all of them be used with the same meaning?
(a) He didn't talk/speak to me until I had finished my job.
(b) He didn't talk/speak to me until I finished my job.
(c) He didn't talk/speak to me before I had finished my job.
(d) He didn't talk/speak to me before I finished my job.

Thanks in advance.
Hirashin

 

mdchachi

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• 15 Jun 2017

• #2

I think they are all ok and same meaning.

 

hirashin

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8 Apr 2004

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• 15 Jun 2017

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• #3

Sorry. I may have made a mistake.
I suppose (a) and (c) should be (a') and (c').
(a') He hadn't talked/spoken to me until I finished my job.
(c') He hadn't talked/spoken to me before I finished my job.

 

mdchachi

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• 16 Jun 2017

• #4

Still ok and same meaning I think.

 

hirashin

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8 Apr 2004

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• 16 Jun 2017

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• #5

Thanks, mdchachi.