I don't know that much about theology because it is not my profession, and thus not all of us, in fact most of us aren't really that much informative about the specific happenings in what we called now the Bible
And
THIS,
pauro12, is the source of a major problem. This is what was essentially kicked-off by the Dark Ages--when the Roman Catholic Church had taken full control of the major geographical block of Europe. This is really, I mean, really, a shame.
It was Jesus the son of God whom I'am pertaining to.
O.K. I have decided to work with helping you learn more detail, and to learn that detail with critical thinking applied. We all know that the English transliteration '
Jesus' primarily came from the Latin. The Latin was taking the Greek transliteration, which was a bad copy of the Hebrew name itself. That inaccurate tradition played a role is most obvious in that that actual name of the Jewish male who would have started the first Nazarene movement would have been Yeshua (or, Jeshua). This is the same name as the fabled warrior-leader of the Israelite tribes talked about in the scroll which had gone by that said person's name,
Joshua. The name itself carries the meaning of '
Ya' is my savoir.' (Ya' is a shortened form of Yahweh.) Since the English has no problem with its transliteration of the Hebrew name in the Tanakh, we can see a bias Christian spin already. (The Latin does this too, but the Greek does not. The Greek LXX gives us
Ἰησοῦς for the Hebrew name in the Joshua scroll, and the NT Greek
ιησους for the name [here without capitalization[.)
The god which the Jews worshiped was
יהוה (YHWH, or Yahweh). Yeshua, the historical person who would have been the leader of that movement, would have worshiped Yahweh. The terminology '
son of God' is an off-spin, of sorts, on the Hebrew idiomatic style of '
children of Yahweh or
sons of Yahweh.' Of course, to argue at all for the assertion that a human had been born due to the intervention of some supernatural, non-physical being, especially if that said being was to have been Yahweh (the Jewish system's god), one is firstly going to have to convincingly support the argument that such said beings are actual entities of nature, out there,
AND that
that particular entity, Yahweh, is an actual existing supernatural being out there totally independent of human imagination. That,
pauro12, is what you are going to have to do.
He and his father are one as what he proclaims that made the people crucify him because they did not believe..
At John 10:30, we have "
εγω και ο πατηρ εν εσμεν ." The word
εν (without breathing mark here) generally represents 'in unity' , or 'in agreement' in this context, as well as anything else. this is repeated at verse 38 too. If we look over at the ending of 17:11 (same document), we will find "
...ινα ωσιν εν καθως ημεις." Here we also find the word
εν, but this time it is talking about those disciples there present at that point in the narrative according to that document. Going a bit further, at the opening of verse 21, we will find, "
ινα παντες εν ωσιν καθως συ πατηρ εν εμοι καγω εν σοι ." Here, the character Jesus of that narrative is said to be praying to Yahweh, and asking that all his followers (not just those there then, in that narrative [see verse 20]) would be 'in unity' or 'in agreement,' as he is in unity, or agreement, with Yahweh. We find this again in verses 22 and 23 too.
It's silly to think that any historical person would have been praying to Yahweh to make all those other humans Yahweh himself. The Gnostic view which had clearly worked into that troupe which produced that document, however had had that bearing. The original historical Yeshua would not have intended such a thing, although. This is actually a didactic tactic by the authorship to demand that the members of the congregations keep in doctrinal unity. It is much along the lines of Romans 12:5, 1 Cor 1:10, and other points. The Greek usage, and the far more likely intent of authorship at that point, was to encourage keeping in agreement on doctrinal matters. It is too bad that some have twisted that, or, through mere ignorance, have grossly misunderstood it.
So now let me ask you the same question, do you believe in love? And if you do and most probably that you really do, so my question is, "What makes you believe in love?"
This is just silly. If you were working in my ward, I'd be careful to remind you that we have a reality that we have to face day in and day out, and that we should pay most close attention to that. Love,
pauro12, is an emotion. It is not an emotion that all are going to have to the fuller degree that others have because emotion exactly depends on brain build/state. You should have known that, but either you don't, or you are not being intellectually straight. We know that emotional processing is real. We know that amygdala calcification to a high degree can practically erase most emotional processing ability--
and the emotion of love can be reduced too, in certain pathways (as in Capgras syndrome).
However, what is most clear, is that you are just deluding yourself. The testimonial evidence and circumstantial evidence for that, is very strong.