- 7 Jun 2008
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A friend recently argued to me that only owners of real property or other substantial assets, who pay the lion's share of taxes, should be allowed to vote. This was actually the law in early America and some European countries.
His rationale as I understood it was that net users of government resources are in a conflict of interest with good government because they'll always want to vote for government benefits for themselves at the expense of good government. They'll always want to vote to spend more of other people's taxes on themselves.
This argument has some appeal to me, but also strikes me as likely to take us back to the 18th or 19th centuries where poor and disabled people starved on the streets or turned to criminals and beggars.
What do you think?
His rationale as I understood it was that net users of government resources are in a conflict of interest with good government because they'll always want to vote for government benefits for themselves at the expense of good government. They'll always want to vote to spend more of other people's taxes on themselves.
This argument has some appeal to me, but also strikes me as likely to take us back to the 18th or 19th centuries where poor and disabled people starved on the streets or turned to criminals and beggars.
What do you think?