My wife has been working for a company since 2008, during that time she has worked her way to being a shift manager.
However over the same time period she has NEVER been paid any paid leave in line with the labor Standards law.
On the few occasions she has approached the company about taking paid leave she has only been offered excuses, with
one excuse being that the company would go bankrupt.
Recent discussions with the company regarding this matter has just resulted in the company making a small offer to
settle the matter and at the same time quoting company rules.
Based on the labor standards law and her length of service she is currently entitled to 40 days, that is 20 days for this year and 20 days
carried over from last year, however the company is stating that as she has not asked for paid leave in line with the company
rules she is not entitled to any paid leave, this means that to date they have robbed her of a total of 181 days.
My question is can a company use the company rules to avoid paying paid leave in line with the labor standards law?
However over the same time period she has NEVER been paid any paid leave in line with the labor Standards law.
On the few occasions she has approached the company about taking paid leave she has only been offered excuses, with
one excuse being that the company would go bankrupt.
Recent discussions with the company regarding this matter has just resulted in the company making a small offer to
settle the matter and at the same time quoting company rules.
Based on the labor standards law and her length of service she is currently entitled to 40 days, that is 20 days for this year and 20 days
carried over from last year, however the company is stating that as she has not asked for paid leave in line with the company
rules she is not entitled to any paid leave, this means that to date they have robbed her of a total of 181 days.
My question is can a company use the company rules to avoid paying paid leave in line with the labor standards law?