I've stopped having coffee for the past two weeks

hirashin · 13 Jun 2017

Dear native English speakers
Would all the sentences have the same meaning?
(a) I've stopped having coffee for the past two weeks.
(b) I've stopped having coffee for the last two weeks
(c) I've stopped having coffee for two weeks

Thanks in advance.
Hirashin

mdchachi · 14 Jun 2017

(c) is a little different because it's not clear if you are still within the two-week period. Maybe you just started "stopping coffee for two weeks."

hirashin · 14 Jun 2017

Is that so? Interesting. Thank you for the help, mdchachi.

hirashin · 15 Jun 2017

I have a further question. Can you say the same thing about these sentences as well?
Is (f) different from the others?
(d) I've been living in this apartment for the past two weeks.
(e) I've been living in this apartment for the last two weeks.
(f) I've been living in this apartment for two weeks.

OoTmaster · 16 Jun 2017

In this case I would say (f) is the same. Simply because living in an apartment isn't something you can easily start/stop like drinking coffee.

joadbres · 16 Jun 2017

OoTmaster said:
Simply because living in an apartment isn't something you can easily start/stop like drinking coffee.

That's not the reason that (f) has the same meaning as (d) and (e). The reason has to do with the use of "been". The use of "been" makes it clear that the action was started two weeks prior.

hirashin · 16 Jun 2017

Thanks for the help, OoTmaster and joadbres.
Do you mean that (d), (e) and (f) have the same meaning?

OoTmaster · 17 Jun 2017

Yes they all have the same meaning.

hirashin · 18 Jun 2017

Thanks, OoTmaster.

I've stopped having coffee for the past two weeks

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