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I've stopped having coffee for the past two weeks

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hirashin

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Dear native English speakers
Would all the sentences have the same meaning?
(a) I've stopped having coffee for the past two weeks.
(b) I've stopped having coffee for the last two weeks
(c) I've stopped having coffee for two weeks

Thanks in advance.
Hirashin
 

mdchachi

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(c) is a little different because it's not clear if you are still within the two-week period. Maybe you just started "stopping coffee for two weeks."
 

hirashin

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Is that so? Interesting. Thank you for the help, mdchachi.
 

hirashin

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I have a further question. Can you say the same thing about these sentences as well?
Is (f) different from the others?
(d) I've been living in this apartment for the past two weeks.
(e) I've been living in this apartment for the last two weeks.
(f) I've been living in this apartment for two weeks.
 

OoTmaster

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In this case I would say (f) is the same. Simply because living in an apartment isn't something you can easily start/stop like drinking coffee.
 

joadbres

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Simply because living in an apartment isn't something you can easily start/stop like drinking coffee.

That's not the reason that (f) has the same meaning as (d) and (e). The reason has to do with the use of "been". The use of "been" makes it clear that the action was started two weeks prior.
 

hirashin

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Thanks for the help, OoTmaster and joadbres.
Do you mean that (d), (e) and (f) have the same meaning?
 
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